Appendix B Application guidance (AASB7_08-15_COMPdec22_01-23)

Paragraph 6 requires an entity to group financial instruments into classes that are appropriate to the nature of the information disclosed and that take into account the characteristics of those financial instruments. The classes described in paragraph 6 are determined by the entity and are, thus, distinct from the categories of financial instruments specified in AASB 9 (which determine how financial instruments are measured and where changes in fair value are recognised).

In determining classes of financial instrument, an entity shall, at a minimum:

(a) distinguish instruments measured at amortised cost from those measured at fair value.

(b) treat as a separate class or classes those financial instruments outside the scope of this Standard.

An entity decides, in the light of its circumstances, how much detail it provides to satisfy the requirements of this Standard, how much emphasis it places on different aspects of the requirements and how it aggregates information to display the overall picture without combining information with different characteristics. It is necessary to strike a balance between overburdening financial statements with excessive detail that may not assist users of financial statements and obscuring important information as a result of too much aggregation. For example, an entity shall not obscure important information by including it among a large amount of insignificant detail. Similarly, an entity shall not disclose information that is so aggregated that it obscures important differences between individual transactions or associated risks.

[Deleted]

Paragraph 21 requires disclosure of material accounting policy information, which is expected to include information about the measurement basis (or bases) for financial instruments used in preparing the financial statements. For financial instruments, such disclosure may include:

(a) for financial liabilities designated as at fair value through profit or loss:

(i) the nature of the financial liabilities the entity has designated as at fair value through profit or loss;

(ii) the criteria for so designating such financial liabilities on initial recognition; and

(iii) how the entity has satisfied the conditions in paragraph 4.2.2 of AASB 9 for such designation.

(aa) for financial assets designated as measured at fair value through profit or loss:

(i) the nature of the financial assets the entity has designated as measured at fair value through profit or loss; and

(ii) how the entity has satisfied the criteria in paragraph 4.1.5 of AASB 9 for such designation.

(b) [deleted]

(c) whether regular way purchases and sales of financial assets are accounted for at trade date or at settlement date (see paragraph 3.1.2 of AASB 9).

(d) [deleted]

(e) how net gains or net losses on each category of financial instrument are determined (see paragraph 20(a)), for example, whether the net gains or net losses on items at fair value through profit or loss include interest or dividend income.

(f) [deleted]

(g) [deleted]

Paragraph 122 of AASB 101 also requires entities to disclose, along with material  accounting policy information or other notes, the judgements, apart from those involving estimations, that management has made in the process of applying the entity’s accounting policies and that have the most significant effect on the amounts recognised in the financial statements.

The disclosures required by paragraphs 31–42 shall be either given in the financial statements or incorporated by cross-reference from the financial statements to some other statement, such as a management commentary or risk report, that is available to users of the financial statements on the same terms as the financial statements and at the same time. Without the information incorporated by cross-reference, the financial statements are incomplete.

Paragraph 34(a) requires disclosures of summary quantitative data about an entity’s exposure to risks based on the information provided internally to key management personnel of the entity. When an entity uses several methods to manage a risk exposure, the entity shall disclose information using the method or methods that provide the most relevant and reliable information. AASB 108 Accounting Policies, Changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors discusses relevance and reliability.

Paragraph 34(c) requires disclosures about concentrations of risk. Concentrations of risk arise from financial instruments that have similar characteristics and are affected similarly by changes in economic or other conditions. The identification of concentrations of risk requires judgement taking into account the circumstances of the entity. Disclosure of concentrations of risk shall include:

(a) a description of how management determines concentrations;

(b) a description of the shared characteristic that identifies each concentration (eg counterparty, geographical area, currency or market); and

(c) the amount of the risk exposure associated with all financial instruments sharing that characteristic.

Paragraph 35F(b) requires the disclosure of information about how an entity has defined default for different financial instruments and the reasons for selecting those definitions. In accordance with paragraph 5.5.9 of AASB 9, the determination of whether lifetime expected credit losses should be recognised is based on the increase in the risk of a default occurring since initial recognition. Information about an entity’s definitions of default that will assist users of financial statements in understanding how an entity has applied the expected credit loss requirements in AASB 9 may include:

(a) the qualitative and quantitative factors considered in defining default;

(b) whether different definitions have been applied to different types of financial instruments; and

(c) assumptions about the cure rate (ie the number of financial assets that return to a performing status) after a default occurred on the financial asset.

To assist users of financial statements in evaluating an entity’s restructuring and modification policies, paragraph 35F(f)(ii) requires the disclosure of information about how an entity monitors the extent to which the loss allowance on financial assets previously disclosed in accordance with paragraph 35F(f)(i) are subsequently measured at an amount equal to lifetime expected credit losses in accordance with paragraph 5.5.3 of AASB 9. Quantitative information that will assist users in understanding the subsequent increase in credit risk of modified financial assets may include information about modified financial assets meeting the criteria in paragraph 35F(f)(i) for which the loss allowance has reverted to being measured at an amount equal to lifetime expected credit losses (ie a deterioration rate).

Paragraph 35G(a) requires the disclosure of information about the basis of inputs and assumptions and the estimation techniques used to apply the impairment requirements in AASB 9. An entity’s assumptions and inputs used to measure expected credit losses or determine the extent of increases in credit risk since initial recognition may include information obtained from internal historical information or rating reports and assumptions about the expected life of financial instruments and the timing of the sale of collateral.

In accordance with paragraph 35H, an entity is required to explain the reasons for the changes in the loss allowance during the period. In addition to the reconciliation from the opening balance to the closing balance of the loss allowance, it may be necessary to provide a narrative explanation of the changes. This narrative explanation may include an analysis of the reasons for changes in the loss allowance during the period, including:

(a) the portfolio composition;

(b) the volume of financial instruments purchased or originated; and

(c) the severity of the expected credit losses.

For loan commitments and financial guarantee contracts the loss allowance is recognised as a provision. An entity should disclose information about the changes in the loss allowance for financial assets separately from those for loan commitments and financial guarantee contracts. However, if a financial instrument includes both a loan (ie financial asset) and an undrawn commitment (ie loan commitment) component and the entity cannot separately identify the expected credit losses on the loan commitment component from those on the financial asset component, the expected credit losses on the loan commitment should be recognised together with the loss allowance for the financial asset. To the extent that the combined expected credit losses exceed the gross carrying amount of the financial asset, the expected credit losses should be recognised as a provision.

Paragraph 35K requires the disclosure of information that will enable users of financial statements to understand the effect of collateral and other credit enhancements on the amount of expected credit losses. An entity is neither required to disclose information about the fair value of collateral and other credit enhancements nor is it required to quantify the exact value of the collateral that was included in the calculation of expected credit losses (ie the loss given default).

A narrative description of collateral and its effect on amounts of expected credit losses might include information about:

(a) the main types of collateral held as security and other credit enhancements (examples of the latter being guarantees, credit derivatives and netting agreements that do not qualify for offset in accordance with AASB 132);

(b) the volume of collateral held and other credit enhancements and its significance in terms of the loss allowance;

(c) the policies and processes for valuing and managing collateral and other credit enhancements;

(d) the main types of counterparties to collateral and other credit enhancements and their creditworthiness; and

(e) information about risk concentrations within the collateral and other credit enhancements.

Paragraph 35M requires the disclosure of information about an entity’s credit risk exposure and significant concentrations of credit risk at the reporting date. A concentration of credit risk exists when a number of counterparties are located in a geographical region or are engaged in similar activities and have similar economic characteristics that would cause their ability to meet contractual obligations to be similarly affected by changes in economic or other conditions. An entity should provide information that enables users of financial statements to understand whether there are groups or portfolios of financial instruments with particular features that could affect a large portion of that group of financial instruments such as concentration to particular risks. This could include, for example, loan-to-value groupings, geographical, industry or issuer-type concentrations.

The number of credit risk rating grades used to disclose the information in accordance with paragraph 35M shall be consistent with the number that the entity reports to key management personnel for credit risk management purposes. If past due information is the only borrower-specific information available and an entity uses past due information to assess whether credit risk has increased significantly since initial recognition in accordance with paragraph 5.5.11 of AASB 9, an entity shall provide an analysis by past due status for those financial assets.

When an entity has measured expected credit losses on a collective basis, the entity may not be able to allocate the gross carrying amount of individual financial assets or the exposure to credit risk on loan commitments and financial guarantee contracts to the credit risk rating grades for which lifetime expected credit losses are recognised. In that case, an entity should apply the requirement in paragraph 35M to those financial instruments that can be directly allocated to a credit risk rating grade and disclose separately the gross carrying amount of financial instruments for which lifetime expected credit losses have been measured on a collective basis.

Paragraphs 35K(a) and 36(a) require disclosure of the amount that best represents the entity’s maximum exposure to credit risk. For a financial asset, this is typically the gross carrying amount, net of:

(a) any amounts offset in accordance with AASB 132; and

(b) any loss allowance recognised in accordance with AASB 9.

Activities that give rise to credit risk and the associated maximum exposure to credit risk include, but are not limited to:

(a) granting loans to customers and placing deposits with other entities. In these cases, the maximum exposure to credit risk is the carrying amount of the related financial assets.

(b) entering into derivative contracts, eg foreign exchange contracts, interest rate swaps and credit derivatives. When the resulting asset is measured at fair value, the maximum exposure to credit risk at the end of the reporting period will equal the carrying amount.

(c) granting financial guarantees. In this case, the maximum exposure to credit risk is the maximum amount the entity could have to pay if the guarantee is called on, which may be significantly greater than the amount recognised as a liability.

(d) making a loan commitment that is irrevocable over the life of the facility or is revocable only in response to a material adverse change. If the issuer cannot settle the loan commitment net in cash or another financial instrument, the maximum credit exposure is the full amount of the commitment. This is because it is uncertain whether the amount of any undrawn portion may be drawn upon in the future. This may be significantly greater than the amount recognised as a liability.

In accordance with paragraph 34(a) an entity discloses summary quantitative data about its exposure to liquidity risk on the basis of the information provided internally to key management personnel. An entity shall explain how those data are determined. If the outflows of cash (or another financial asset) included in those data could either:

(a) occur significantly earlier than indicated in the data, or

(b) be for significantly different amounts from those indicated in the data (eg for a derivative that is included in the data on a net settlement basis but for which the counterparty has the option to require gross settlement),

the entity shall state that fact and provide quantitative information that enables users of its financial statements to evaluate the extent of this risk unless that information is included in the contractual maturity analyses required by paragraph 39(a) or (b).

In preparing the maturity analyses required by paragraph 39(a) and (b), an entity uses its judgement to determine an appropriate number of time bands. For example, an entity might determine that the following time bands are appropriate:

(a) not later than one month;

(b) later than one month and not later than three months;

(c) later than three months and not later than one year; and

(d) later than one year and not later than five years.

In complying with paragraph 39(a) and (b), an entity shall not separate an embedded derivative from a hybrid (combined) financial instrument. For such an instrument, an entity shall apply paragraph 39(a).

Paragraph 39(b) requires an entity to disclose a quantitative maturity analysis for derivative financial liabilities that shows remaining contractual maturities if the contractual maturities are essential for an understanding of the timing of the cash flows. For example, this would be the case for:

(a) an interest rate swap with a remaining maturity of five years in a cash flow hedge of a variable rate financial asset or liability.

(b) all loan commitments.

Paragraph 39(a) and (b) requires an entity to disclose maturity analyses for financial liabilities that show the remaining contractual maturities for some financial liabilities. In this disclosure:

(a) when a counterparty has a choice of when an amount is paid, the liability is allocated to the earliest period in which the entity can be required to pay. For example, financial liabilities that an entity can be required to repay on demand (eg demand deposits) are included in the earliest time band.

(b) when an entity is committed to make amounts available in instalments, each instalment is allocated to the earliest period in which the entity can be required to pay. For example, an undrawn loan commitment is included in the time band containing the earliest date it can be drawn down.

(c) for issued financial guarantee contracts the maximum amount of the guarantee is allocated to the earliest period in which the guarantee could be called.

The contractual amounts disclosed in the maturity analyses as required by paragraph 39(a) and (b) are the contractual undiscounted cash flows, for example:

(a) gross lease liabilities (before deducting finance charges);

(b) prices specified in forward agreements to purchase financial assets for cash;

(c) net amounts for pay-floating/receive-fixed interest rate swaps for which net cash flows are exchanged;

(d) contractual amounts to be exchanged in a derivative financial instrument (eg a currency swap) for which gross cash flows are exchanged; and

(e) gross loan commitments.

Such undiscounted cash flows differ from the amount included in the statement of financial position because the amount in that statement is based on discounted cash flows. When the amount payable is not fixed, the amount disclosed is determined by reference to the conditions existing at the end of the reporting period. For example, when the amount payable varies with changes in an index, the amount disclosed may be based on the level of the index at the end of the period.

Paragraph 39(c) requires an entity to describe how it manages the liquidity risk inherent in the items disclosed in the quantitative disclosures required in paragraph 39(a) and (b). An entity shall disclose a maturity analysis of financial assets it holds for managing liquidity risk (eg financial assets that are readily saleable or expected to generate cash inflows to meet cash outflows on financial liabilities), if that information is necessary to enable users of its financial statements to evaluate the nature and extent of liquidity risk.

Other factors that an entity might consider in providing the disclosure required in paragraph 39(c) include, but are not limited to, whether the entity:

(a) has committed borrowing facilities (eg commercial paper facilities) or other lines of credit (eg stand-by credit facilities) that it can access to meet liquidity needs;

(b) holds deposits at central banks to meet liquidity needs;

(c) has very diverse funding sources;

(d) has significant concentrations of liquidity risk in either its assets or its funding sources;

(e) has internal control processes and contingency plans for managing liquidity risk;

(f) has instruments that include accelerated repayment terms (eg on the downgrade of the entity’s credit rating);

(g) has instruments that could require the posting of collateral (eg margin calls for derivatives);

(h) has instruments that allow the entity to choose whether it settles its financial liabilities by delivering cash (or another financial asset) or by delivering its own shares; or

(i) has instruments that are subject to master netting agreements.

[Deleted]

Paragraph 40(a) requires a sensitivity analysis for each type of market risk to which the entity is exposed. In accordance with paragraph B3, an entity decides how it aggregates information to display the overall picture without combining information with different characteristics about exposures to risks from significantly different economic environments. For example:

(a) an entity that trades financial instruments might disclose this information separately for financial instruments held for trading and those not held for trading.

(b) an entity would not aggregate its exposure to market risks from areas of hyperinflation with its exposure to the same market risks from areas of very low inflation.

If an entity has exposure to only one type of market risk in only one economic environment, it would not show disaggregated information.

Paragraph 40(a) requires the sensitivity analysis to show the effect on profit or loss and equity of reasonably possible changes in the relevant risk variable (eg prevailing market interest rates, currency rates, equity prices or commodity prices). For this purpose:

(a) entities are not required to determine what the profit or loss for the period would have been if relevant risk variables had been different. Instead, entities disclose the effect on profit or loss and equity at the end of the reporting period assuming that a reasonably possible change in the relevant risk variable had occurred at the end of the reporting period and had been applied to the risk exposures in existence at that date. For example, if an entity has a floating rate liability at the end of the year, the entity would disclose the effect on profit or loss (ie interest expense) for the current year if interest rates had varied by reasonably possible amounts.

(b) entities are not required to disclose the effect on profit or loss and equity for each change within a range of reasonably possible changes of the relevant risk variable. Disclosure of the effects of the changes at the limits of the reasonably possible range would be sufficient.

In determining what a reasonably possible change in the relevant risk variable is, an entity should consider:

(a) the economic environments in which it operates. A reasonably possible change should not include remote or ‘worst case’ scenarios or ‘stress tests’. Moreover, if the rate of change in the underlying risk variable is stable, the entity need not alter the chosen reasonably possible change in the risk variable. For example, assume that interest rates are 5 per cent and an entity determines that a fluctuation in interest rates of ±50 basis points is reasonably possible. It would disclose the effect on profit or loss and equity if interest rates were to change to 4.5 per cent or 5.5 per cent. In the next period, interest rates have increased to 5.5 per cent. The entity continues to believe that interest rates may fluctuate by ±50 basis points (ie that the rate of change in interest rates is stable). The entity would disclose the effect on profit or loss and equity if interest rates were to change to 5 per cent or 6 per cent. The entity would not be required to revise its assessment that interest rates might reasonably fluctuate by ±50 basis points, unless there is evidence that interest rates have become significantly more volatile.

(b) the time frame over which it is making the assessment. The sensitivity analysis shall show the effects of changes that are considered to be reasonably possible over the period until the entity will next present these disclosures, which is usually its next annual reporting period.

Paragraph 41 permits an entity to use a sensitivity analysis that reflects interdependencies between risk variables, such as a value-at-risk methodology, if it uses this analysis to manage its exposure to financial risks. This applies even if such a methodology measures only the potential for loss and does not measure the potential for gain. Such an entity might comply with paragraph 41(a) by disclosing the type of value-at-risk model used (eg whether the model relies on Monte Carlo simulations), an explanation about how the model works and the main assumptions (eg the holding period and confidence level). Entities might also disclose the historical observation period and weightings applied to observations within that period, an explanation of how options are dealt with in the calculations, and which volatilities and correlations (or, alternatively, Monte Carlo probability distribution simulations) are used.

An entity shall provide sensitivity analyses for the whole of its business, but may provide different types of sensitivity analysis for different classes of financial instruments.

Interest rate risk arises on interest-bearing financial instruments recognised in the statement of financial position (eg debt instruments acquired or issued) and on some financial instruments not recognised in the statement of financial position (eg some loan commitments).

Currency risk (or foreign exchange risk) arises on financial instruments that are denominated in a foreign currency, ie in a currency other than the functional currency in which they are measured. For the purpose of this Standard, currency risk does not arise from financial instruments that are non-monetary items or from financial instruments denominated in the functional currency.

A sensitivity analysis is disclosed for each currency to which an entity has significant exposure.

Other price risk arises on financial instruments because of changes in, for example, commodity prices or equity prices. To comply with paragraph 40, an entity might disclose the effect of a decrease in a specified stock market index, commodity price, or other risk variable. For example, if an entity gives residual value guarantees that are financial instruments, the entity discloses an increase or decrease in the value of the assets to which the guarantee applies.

Two examples of financial instruments that give rise to equity price risk are (a) a holding of equities in another entity and (b) an investment in a trust that in turn holds investments in equity instruments. Other examples include forward contracts and options to buy or sell specified quantities of an equity instrument and swaps that are indexed to equity prices. The fair values of such financial instruments are affected by changes in the market price of the underlying equity instruments.

In accordance with paragraph 40(a), the sensitivity of profit or loss (that arises, for example, from instruments measured at fair value through profit or loss) is disclosed separately from the sensitivity of other comprehensive income (that arises, for example, from investments in equity instruments whose changes in fair value are presented in other comprehensive income).

Financial instruments that an entity classifies as equity instruments are not remeasured. Neither profit or loss nor equity will be affected by the equity price risk of those instruments. Accordingly, no sensitivity analysis is required.

The assessment of continuing involvement in a transferred financial asset for the purposes of the disclosure requirements in paragraphs 42E–42H is made at the level of the reporting entity. For example, if a subsidiary transfers to an unrelated third party a financial asset in which the parent of the subsidiary has continuing involvement, the subsidiary does not include the parent’s involvement in the assessment of whether it has continuing involvement in the transferred asset in its separate or individual financial statements (ie when the subsidiary is the reporting entity). However, a parent would include its continuing involvement (or that of another member of the group) in a financial asset transferred by its subsidiary in determining whether it has continuing involvement in the transferred asset in its consolidated financial statements (ie when the reporting entity is the group).

An entity does not have a continuing involvement in a transferred financial asset if, as part of the transfer, it neither retains any of the contractual rights or obligations inherent in the transferred financial asset nor acquires any new contractual rights or obligations relating to the transferred financial asset. An entity does not have continuing involvement in a transferred financial asset if it has neither an interest in the future performance of the transferred financial asset nor a responsibility under any circumstances to make payments in respect of the transferred financial asset in the future. The term ‘payment’ in this context does not include cash flows of the transferred financial asset that an entity collects and is required to remit to the transferee.

When an entity transfers a financial asset, the entity may retain the right to service that financial asset for a fee that is included in, for example, a servicing contract. The entity assesses the servicing contract in accordance with the guidance in paragraphs 42C and B30 to decide whether the entity has continuing involvement as a result of the servicing contract for the purposes of the disclosure requirements. For example, a servicer will have continuing involvement in the transferred financial asset for the purposes of the disclosure requirements if the servicing fee is dependent on the amount or timing of the cash flows collected from the transferred financial asset. Similarly, a servicer has continuing involvement for the purposes of the disclosure requirements if a fixed fee would not be paid in full because of non-performance of the transferred financial asset. In these examples, the servicer has an interest in the future performance of the transferred financial asset. This assessment is independent of whether the fee to be received is expected to compensate the entity adequately for performing the servicing.

Continuing involvement in a transferred financial asset may result from contractual provisions in the transfer agreement or in a separate agreement with the transferee or a third party entered into in connection with the transfer.

Paragraph 42D requires disclosures when part or all of the transferred financial assets do not qualify for derecognition. Those disclosures are required at each reporting date at which the entity continues to recognise the transferred financial assets, regardless of when the transfers occurred.

Paragraphs 42E–42H require qualitative and quantitative disclosures for each type of continuing involvement in derecognised financial assets. An entity shall aggregate its continuing involvement into types that are representative of the entity’s exposure to risks. For example, an entity may aggregate its continuing involvement by type of financial instrument (eg guarantees or call options) or by type of transfer (eg factoring of receivables, securitisations and securities lending).

Paragraph 42E(e) requires an entity to disclose a maturity analysis of the undiscounted cash outflows to repurchase derecognised financial assets or other amounts payable to the transferee in respect of the derecognised financial assets, showing the remaining contractual maturities of the entity’s continuing involvement. This analysis distinguishes cash flows that are required to be paid (eg forward contracts), cash flows that the entity may be required to pay (eg written put options) and cash flows that the entity might choose to pay (eg purchased call options).

An entity shall use its judgement to determine an appropriate number of time bands in preparing the maturity analysis required by paragraph 42E(e). For example, an entity might determine that the following maturity time bands are appropriate:

(a) not later than one month;

(b) later than one month and not later than three months;

(c) later than three months and not later than six months;

(d) later than six months and not later than one year;

(e) later than one year and not later than three years;

(f) later than three years and not later than five years; and

(g) more than five years.

If there is a range of possible maturities, the cash flows are included on the basis of the earliest date on which the entity can be required or is permitted to pay.

The qualitative information required by paragraph 42E(f) includes a description of the derecognised financial assets and the nature and purpose of the continuing involvement retained after transferring those assets. It also includes a description of the risks to which an entity is exposed, including:

(a) a description of how the entity manages the risk inherent in its continuing involvement in the derecognised financial assets.

(b) whether the entity is required to bear losses before other parties, and the ranking and amounts of losses borne by parties whose interests rank lower than the entity’s interest in the asset (ie its continuing involvement in the asset).

(c) a description of any triggers associated with obligations to provide financial support or to repurchase a transferred financial asset.

Paragraph 42G(a) requires an entity to disclose the gain or loss on derecognition relating to financial assets in which the entity has continuing involvement. The entity shall disclose if a gain or loss on derecognition arose because the fair values of the components of the previously recognised asset (ie the interest in the asset derecognised and the interest retained by the entity) were different from the fair value of the previously recognised asset as a whole. In that situation, the entity shall also disclose whether the fair value measurements included significant inputs that were not based on observable market data, as described in paragraph 27A.

The disclosures required in paragraphs 42D–42G may not be sufficient to meet the disclosure objectives in paragraph 42B. If this is the case, the entity shall disclose whatever additional information is necessary to meet the disclosure objectives. The entity shall decide, in the light of its circumstances, how much additional information it needs to provide to satisfy the information needs of users and how much emphasis it places on different aspects of the additional information. It is necessary to strike a balance between burdening financial statements with excessive detail that may not assist users of financial statements and obscuring information as a result of too much aggregation.

The disclosures in paragraphs 13B–13E are required for all recognised financial instruments that are set off in accordance with paragraph 42 of AASB 132. In addition, financial instruments are within the scope of the disclosure requirements in paragraphs 13B–13E if they are subject to an enforceable master netting arrangement or similar agreement that covers similar financial instruments and transactions, irrespective of whether the financial instruments are set off in accordance with paragraph 42 of AASB 132.

The similar agreements referred to in paragraphs 13A and B40 include derivative clearing agreements, global master repurchase agreements, global master securities lending agreements, and any related rights to financial collateral. The similar financial instruments and transactions referred to in paragraph B40 include derivatives, sale and repurchase agreements, reverse sale and repurchase agreements, securities borrowing, and securities lending agreements. Examples of financial instruments that are not within the scope of paragraph 13A are loans and customer deposits at the same institution (unless they are set off in the statement of financial position), and financial instruments that are subject only to a collateral agreement.

Financial instruments disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C may be subject to different measurement requirements (for example, a payable related to a repurchase agreement may be measured at amortised cost, while a derivative will be measured at fair value). An entity shall include instruments at their recognised amounts and describe any resulting measurement differences in the related disclosures.

The amounts required by paragraph 13C(a) relate to recognised financial instruments that are set off in accordance with paragraph 42 of AASB 132. The amounts required by paragraph 13C(a) also relate to recognised financial instruments that are subject to an enforceable master netting arrangement or similar agreement irrespective of whether they meet the offsetting criteria. However, the disclosures required by paragraph 13C(a) do not relate to any amounts recognised as a result of collateral agreements that do not meet the offsetting criteria in paragraph 42 of AASB 132. Instead, such amounts are required to be disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(d).

Paragraph 13C(b) requires that entities disclose the amounts set off in accordance with paragraph 42 of AASB 132 when determining the net amounts presented in the statement of financial position. The amounts of both the recognised financial assets and the recognised financial liabilities that are subject to set-off under the same arrangement will be disclosed in both the financial asset and financial liability disclosures. However, the amounts disclosed (in, for example, a table) are limited to the amounts that are subject to set-off. For example, an entity may have a recognised derivative asset and a recognised derivative liability that meet the offsetting criteria in paragraph 42 of AASB 132. If the gross amount of the derivative asset is larger than the gross amount of the derivative liability, the financial asset disclosure table will include the entire amount of the derivative asset (in accordance with paragraph 13C(a)) and the entire amount of the derivative liability (in accordance with paragraph 13C(b)). However, while the financial liability disclosure table will include the entire amount of the derivative liability (in accordance with paragraph 13C(a)), it will only include the amount of the derivative asset (in accordance with paragraph 13C(b)) that is equal to the amount of the derivative liability.

If an entity has instruments that meet the scope of these disclosures (as specified in paragraph 13A), but that do not meet the offsetting criteria in paragraph 42 of AASB 132, the amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph 13C(c) would equal the amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph 13C(a).

The amounts required to be disclosed by paragraph 13C(c) must be reconciled to the individual line item amounts presented in the statement of financial position. For example, if an entity determines that the aggregation or disaggregation of individual financial statement line item amounts provides more relevant information, it must reconcile the aggregated or disaggregated amounts disclosed in paragraph 13C(c) back to the individual line item amounts presented in the statement of financial position.

Paragraph 13C(d) requires that entities disclose amounts that are subject to an enforceable master netting arrangement or similar agreement that are not otherwise included in paragraph 13C(b). Paragraph 13C(d)(i) refers to amounts related to recognised financial instruments that do not meet some or all of the offsetting criteria in paragraph 42 of AASB 132 (for example, current rights of set-off that do not meet the criterion in paragraph 42(b) of AASB 132, or conditional rights of set-off that are enforceable and exercisable only in the event of default, or only in the event of insolvency or bankruptcy of any of the counterparties).

Paragraph 13C(d)(ii) refers to amounts related to financial collateral, including cash collateral, both received and pledged. An entity shall disclose the fair value of those financial instruments that have been pledged or received as collateral. The amounts disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(d)(ii) should relate to the actual collateral received or pledged and not to any resulting payables or receivables recognised to return or receive back such collateral.

When disclosing amounts in accordance with paragraph 13C(d), an entity must take into account the effects of over-collateralisation by financial instrument. To do so, the entity must first deduct the amounts disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(d)(i) from the amount disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(c). The entity shall then limit the amounts disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(d)(ii) to the remaining amount in paragraph 13C(c) for the related financial instrument. However, if rights to collateral can be enforced across financial instruments, such rights can be included in the disclosure provided in accordance with paragraph 13D.

An entity shall describe the types of rights of set-off and similar arrangements disclosed in accordance with paragraph 13C(d), including the nature of those rights. For example, an entity shall describe its conditional rights. For instruments subject to rights of set-off that are not contingent on a future event but that do not meet the remaining criteria in paragraph 42 of AASB 132, the entity shall describe the reason(s) why the criteria are not met. For any financial collateral received or pledged, the entity shall describe the terms of the collateral agreement (for example, when the collateral is restricted).

The quantitative disclosures required by paragraph 13C(a)–(e) may be grouped by type of financial instrument or transaction (for example, derivatives, repurchase and reverse repurchase agreements or securities borrowing and securities lending agreements).

Alternatively, an entity may group the quantitative disclosures required by paragraph 13C(a)–(c) by type of financial instrument, and the quantitative disclosures required by paragraph 13C(c)–(e) by counterparty. If an entity provides the required information by counterparty, the entity is not required to identify the counterparties by name. However, designation of counterparties (Counterparty A, Counterparty B, Counterparty C, etc) shall remain consistent from year to year for the years presented to maintain comparability. Qualitative disclosures shall be considered so that further information can be given about the types of counterparties. When disclosure of the amounts in paragraph 13C(c)–(e) is provided by counterparty, amounts that are individually significant in terms of total counterparty amounts shall be separately disclosed and the remaining individually insignificant counterparty amounts shall be aggregated into one line item.

The specific disclosures required by paragraphs 13C–13E are minimum requirements. To meet the objective in paragraph 13B an entity may need to supplement them with additional (qualitative) disclosures, depending on the terms of the enforceable master netting arrangements and related agreements, including the nature of the rights of set-off, and their effect or potential effect on the entity’s financial position.